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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2013 Delhi

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2013 Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks : 100

General Instructions:

  • All questions are compulsory. This questions paper has 27 questions in all. There are five sections in this question paper.
  • Section A contains Questions number 1-5 of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
  • Section B contains Questions number 6-10 of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
  • Section C contains Questions number 11-16 of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
  • Section D contains Questions number 17-21 of 5 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.
  • In Section D Question number 21 is a map-based question. Write its answer in your answer-book.
  • Section E contains Question number 22-27 of 6 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2013 Delhi Set – I

Question 1.
What is meant by ‘9/11’ in the context of U.S.A? [1]
Answer:
‘9/11’ is important for the USA because on that day a group of militant high jackers attacked the World Trade Centre in New York and the Pentagon in Washington.

Question 2.
Correct the following statement and rewrite: ASEAN stands for ‘Association of South East African Nations’. [1]
Answer:
ASEAN stands for ‘Association of South East Asian Nations’.


Question 3.
How many Permanent Members and how many Non-Permanent Members does the UN Security Council have? [1]
Answer:
There are 5 Permanent and 10 Non-Permanent Members in the U.N. Security Council.

Question 4.
What is meant by ‘Security’? [1]
Answer:
Security is a simple word which means freedom from threat.

Question 5.
What is the ‘Two Nation Theory’ advanced by the Muslim League? [1]
Answer:
According to Muslim League in India, before partition 1947, there were two nations, i.e., Hindu Nation and Muslim Nation. They advocated creation of a new seperate state for Muslims.

Question 6.
Name the founder President of the Congress Socialist Party. What name was given to this party after 1948? [1]
Answer:
Acharya Narendra Deva was the founder President of the Congress Socialist Party. After 1948, this party was known as the Praja Socialist Party.


Question 7.
After which General Election in India did the Congress Party lose its dominance for the first time at the centre?  [1]
Answer:
After the General Election of 1977, Congress Party lost its dominance for the first time at the centre.

Question 8.
After the death of Lai Bahadur Shastri, which two leaders of the Congress Party contested against one another to become the leader of the Congress Parliamentary party? [1]
Answer:
Sh. Morarji Desai and Smt. Indira Gandhi contested in elections against one another to become the leader of the Congress Parliamentary Party.

Question 9.
Name the popular movement which demanded that no forest exploiting contract should be given to any outsiders? [1]
Answer:
Chipko Movement.

Question 10.
From which year did the era of Coalition Governments at the Centre begin in India? [1]
Answer:
The era of Coalition Government at the centre began in India from 1989.


Question 11.
Name the two superpowers responsible for Cold War. When did the world become unipolar? [2]
Answer:
U.S.A and U.S.S.R were responsible for the Cold War. The world became Unipolar in 1991.

Question 12.
What is meant by ‘Shock Therapy’? [2]
Answer:
With the disintegration of Soviet Union, the process of change from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic socialist system led to great turmoil in terms of changes in society and economy. This was called ‘Shock Therapy’.

Question 13.
When was ASEAN Regional Forum established? What was its main objective? [2]
Answer:
ASEAN Regional Forum was established in 1993 with the objective of economic growth, regional security, regional peace and stability, co-operation and dialogue platform among foreign ministers of ASEAN and its full dialogue partners.

Question 14.
Explain the traditional concept of ‘Security’. [2]
Answer:
In the traditional concept of ‘security’, the greatest danger to a country is from military threats. Military threat is always from another country and such action endangers the core value of sovereignty and independence of a country. The military action also endangers the lives of the people.

Question 15.
Why are International Organizations like the U.N. required? [2]
Answer:

  • These International Organizations are helpful in preventing wars and establishing law and order in the world.
  • The international organizations are helpful in creating better living conditions.

Question 16.
Which four Princely States of India initially resisted to join the Indian Union? [2]
Answer:
Junagarh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur are four Princely States of India which initially resisted to join the Indian Union.

Question 17.
Which are the two models of development? Which model of development was adopted by India? [2]
Answer:
The two models of development are Liberal — Capitalist model and Socialist Model. India adopted the model which was a combination of both the models.

Question 18.
What is India’s Policy of Non-alignment? [2]
Answer:
The main characteristic of India’s foreign policy is Non-alignment. Non-alignment means that India will remain independent by not joining any group. Non- alignment is a policy of peace. Non-alignment does not mean neutrality in international affairs. India’s policy of Non-alignment is positive one. India wants to bridge the gap between eastern and western ideologies.

Question 19.
Mention any two issues of concern related to development projects such as Sardar Sarovar Project? [2]
Answer:

  • Rehabilitation due to the project affected the villagers.
  • The social cost included forced resettlement of the project affected people, a serious loss of their means of livelihood and culture and depletion of ecological resources.

Question 20.
Highlight any two recommendations of Mandal Commission. [2]
Answer:

  • Twenty-seven percent of the posts in public services should be reserved for OBC.
  • Welfare programmes specially meant for OBC should be financed by the Government of India in the same manner and to the same extent as already done in the case of SC’s and ST’s.

Question 21.
Explain any two reasons for the disintegration of the U.S.S.R.? [4]
Answer:
The following were the main reasons for the disintegration of the former Soviet Union,
(i) Negation of Political Democracy: After the death of Lenin in 1924, Stalin had succeeded in establishing himself as an absolute dictator. The Parliament of the Soviet Union (Duma) had been reduced to mere rubber stamp giving approval to his decisions. The government exercised strict controls overall means of communication (i.e., radio, newspaper etc.). The dictatorial character of the regime caused discontentment in public.

(ii) Economic Failure: Because of the emphasis on heavy industries the Soviet Economy failed to meet the expectations of people, especially in terms of food production and the consumer goods. The management and control of agriculture and industry was in the hands of state officials. In order to raise agricultural and industrial production, recourse was taken to violence and terror, but food situation went from bad to worse.

Question 22.
List any four ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ given in the Constitution of India for the promotion of international peace and security. [4]
Answer:
Article 51 of the Indian Constitution lays down certain principles which are the basis of Indian Foreign Policy. Following are constitutional bases of the Indian Foreign Policy:

  • To promote international peace and security.
  • To establish just and respectable relations with various nations.
  •  To foster respect for international law and order obligations in the dealings of organized people with one another.
  • To encourage the settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

Question 23.
Describe any two constraints on American Hegemony? [4]
Answer:
At the beginning of the 21st century, the United States was a super power. But history tells us that empires decline because they decay from within. Similarly, the biggest constraint to American hegemony is within. Broadly there are three constraints on American Power :

  • The first constraint is the institutional architecture of the American state itself. American system is based on division of power between the three organs of government i.e., legislature, executive and judiciary. These organs put many restrictions on military powers.
  • The second constraint on American power is the open nature of the American Society. It means that there is no government control over mass media.

Question 24.
Describe any two major issues of conflict between India and Pakistan leading to the war of 1971. [4]
Answer:
(i) The war of 1971 was triggered by the crisis created by the political battle in East Pakistan, between Sheikh Mujib-ur-Rehman and the leaders of West Pakistan. India extended moral and material support to the freedom struggle in East Pakistan. So, Pakistan accused India of a conspiracy to break it up.

(ii) India had to bear the burden of about 80 lakh refugee who fled East Pakistan and took shelter in neighbouring areas in India. After months of diplomatic tension and military build-up, a full- scale war between India and Pakistan broke out in December, 1971.

Question 25.
Identify and explain any four new sources of threat to security. [4]
Answer:
New sources of threat are Terrorism, Violation of Human Rights, Global Poverty and Migrants.
(i) Terrorism: Terrorism is a serious threat to human security. Terrorism is unlawful activity used to achieve desired objectives. Terrorism refers to violence which targets the civilians deliberately and indiscriminately. Bomb blasts, human bombs, mass killings etc. are all acts of terrorism.

(ii) Violation of Human rights: Human Rights ‘ are those rights which are essential for all round development of a man. Human Rights are commonly understood as those rights that every human being is entitled to enjoy, freely irrespective of his religion, race, caste, sex, nationality or any one of these. In majority of the countries of the world, human rights are not available to their citizens. The violation of human rights is perceived as a threat to human security.

(iii) Global poverty: Global poverty is another big threat to human security. Poverty is increasing in countries with low income and large population whereas richer countries with stable population are becoming richer. The global poverty is affecting the security of the poor countries. Many armed conflicts have occurred in Sub-Sahara Africa, which is the poorest region of the world.

(iv) Migrants: Those who voluntarily leave their home-countries are called migrants. The migrants also create problems for human security.

Question 26.
Explain any four consequences of globalization. [4]
Answer:

  • Political consequence helps to maintain both the condition of welfare state as well as police state activities.
  • Increase in economic globalisation has involved greater trade in commodities across the globe.
  • Cultural consequence has led to rise of uniform Cultural homogenisation.
  • The ability of flow of ideas, capital, commodities and people to more work easily from one part of the world to another has been made possible largely due to globalisation.

Question 27.
Explain any four reasons for the dominance of the Congress Party in the first three General Elections. [4]
Answer:
Indian National Congress dominated in the first three general elections. Following factors were mainly responsible for the dominance of Congress Party :

  • The Congress was seen as the inheritor of the legacy of the national movement. Many leaders who were at the forefront of that struggle were now Congress leaders.
  • It was a well organised party having its organisational networks across the length and breadth of the country till the down to the local levels.
  • It had the “first off the blocks” advantage.
  • It was a party of social and ideological coalition. It brought together peasants and industrialists, lower and upper classes, urban dwellers and villagers, workers and owners and castes. It accommodated the revolutionary and pacifists, conservatives radicals, extremists and moderates, right and left and all shades of centre.

Question 28.
Where and when was the organisation ‘Dalit Panthers’ formed? Describe any three of its activities? [4]
Answer:
The organisation ‘Dalit Panthers’ was formed in Maharashtra in 1972. It was an organization of educated Dalit youths. Baburao Bagul, Raja Dhale, Namdev Dhasal gave direction to Dalit policies through their poems, literature and biographies. Dalit Panthers openly challenged casteism and Brahmanisam for the welfare of Dalits.

  • Dalit Panthers’ aim was to unite the Dalits and bring them into their fold.
  • According to the manifesto of Dalit Panthers ‘Dalit’word includes scheduled castes and tribes, new Buddhists, economically backward workers, women, landless poor peasants and all those persons who were being exploited.
  • According to their manifesto, main problems of Dalit were lack of education, food, water, shelter, jobs, land, unequal social status and atrocities inflicted upon them.
  • According to Dalit Panthers, their problem could be solved only by acquiring economic and political power.

Question 29.
Why is the ‘Emergency’ and period around it known as the period of Constitutional crisis? Explain. [4]
Answer:
Internal Emergency was declared on June 1975. The Emergency and the period around is known as the period of a constitutional crisis because it had its origins in the constitutional battle over the jurisdiction of the Parliament and the judiciary. Emergency damaged the democratic framework of India. The most disgraceful dimension of the Emergency was not its imposition but the modus operandi in which almost the entire country succumbed to it.

The rule of law and norms were misapplied during the period of Emergency. This political crisis was more sedate than the constitutional crisis. Along with the arrests of political leaders of opposition parties and the inhibitions on the press, the emergency apparently influenced lives of common people in many ways. Torture and custodial deaths were common incidents during the Emergency. Self- willed translocation of poor people also occurred and cases of mandatory sterilization. Such instances clearly show what happens when the common democratic process is placed under suspension.

Question 30.
In the given Political Outline Map of Europe, four member countries of European Union have been marked A, B, C and D. Identify them with the help of information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with with their respective serial number and the alphabet concerned.
(i) An older member of the European Union located between Portugal and France.
(ii) An older member of the European Union located near Belgium and Netherlands.
(iii) Two new members of European Union. [4]
CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2013 Delhi 1
Answer:

(i)DSpain
(ii)AGermany
(iii)CRomania
(iv)BPoland

Question 31.
Study the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic negotiations rather than through suppression. Look at the situation in the eighties—militancy had erupted in Punjab; problems were persisting in North East; students in Assam were agitating; Kashmir valley was on the boil. Instead of treating these as simple law and order problems, the Government of India reached negotiated settlement with regional movements.
Questions :
(i) How are regional aspirations dangerous for the unity of the country?
(ii) What is meant by democratic negotiations?
(iii) Who was leading the agitation in Assam?
(iv) What steps were taken by the Government of India to respond to the regional aspirations? [6]
OR
Study the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
In fact, the BSP under Kanshi Ram’s leadership was envisaged as an organization based on pragmmatic politics. It derived confidence from the fact that the Bahujans (SCs, STs, OBCs and religious minorities) constituted the majority of the population and were a formidable political force on the strength of their numbers. Questions:
(i) Which organization was formed by Kanshi Ram?
(ii) Give the full form of BSP.
(iii) Name any two religious minorities.
(iv) Why are the Bahujans considered a formidable political force?
Answer:
(i) Regional aspirations are dangerous for the unity of the country because people give more importance to their region than to the country. Even after 71 years of independence some of the issues of national integration are not completely solved.

(ii) Settlement of disputes by peaceful method is known as democratic negotiations. Regional movements should be solved through political settlement i.e., democratic negotiations rather than suppression.

(iii) All Assam Students’ Union (AASU) and Asom Gana Parishad (AGP) led the agitations in Assam.

(iv) The Government of India reached negotiated settlement with regional movement. For example, the Mizoram problem was solved by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi through negotiations. Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi made serious efforts to solve the problems of foreigners of Assam and ultimately, an agreement was signed on 15 August 1985. The Govt, of India agreed to take proper steps for the economic development of Assam. Moreover, special provisions are mentioned in the Constitution to satisfy the regional aspirations.
OR
(i) The Backward and Minority Classes Employees Federation (BAMCEF).
(ii) Bahujan Samaj Party.
(iii) Muslim and Sikhs.
(iv) Bahujans are considered to be a formidable political force because Bahujans are supported by S.C., backward classes, Dalits, etc.

Question 32.
‘States have common but differentiated responsibilities towards environment.’ Analyze the statement giving suitable examples. [6]
OR
Analyze India’s stand on environmental issues.
Answer:
The relevant part of the Rio Declaration says that “a State shall co-operate in the spirit of a global partnership to conserve, protect and restore the health and integrity of earth’s ecosystem. In view of the different contributions of the global environment degradation, states have common but differentiated responsibilities. The developed countries acknowledge the responsibility that they bear in the international pursuit of the sustainable development, in view of the pressure, their societies place on the global environment and of the technological and financial resources they command”. The largest share of historical and current global emissions has originated in the developed countries. The per-capita emissions in developing countries are still relatively low. Hence India, China and other developing countries were exempted from the requirements of the Kyoto Protocol. Under the Kyoto Protocol, industrial countries are required to cut their green house emissions.
OR
India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in August 2002. At the G-8 meeting in June 2005, India pointed out that the per capita emission rates of the developing countries are a tiny fraction of those in the developed world. India is of view that the major responsibility of curbing emission depends upon developed countries, which have accumulated emission over a long period of time. India’s international negotiating position depends on the principles of historical responsibilities, as enshrined in UNFCCC. The Indian Government is already participating in global efforts through a number of programmes :

  • India’s national Auto-Fuel policy mandates cleaner fuel for vehicles.
  • The energy conservation act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency.
  • The electricity act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy.
  • India has one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.
  • The government was also keen to launch a National Mission on Biodiesel, using about 11 million hectares of land to produce biodiesel by 2011-2012.

Question 33.
Explain any three consequences of partition of British India in 1947. [6]
OR
Explain the process and basis of the reorganization of states of Indian Union.
Answer:
(i) The year 1947 was the year of one of the largest, most abrupt, unplanned and tragic transfer of population that Indian history has known. There were killings and atrocities on both sides of the border. In the name of religion people of one community ruthlessly killed and maimed people of the other community. Cities like Lahore, Amritsar and Kolkata became divided into ‘communal zones’.

(ii) Minorities on both sides of the border fled their homes and often secured temporary shelters in ‘refugee camps’. They often found unhelpful administration. They travelled to other countries to the other side of the new border by all sorts of means, often by foot. Even during this journey they were often attacked, killed or raped. Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of the border. They were made to convert to the religion of the abductor and were forced into marriage. In many cases, women were killed by their own family members to preserve the family honour. Many children were separated from their parents. Those who did manage to cross.the border found that they had no home. For millions of these ‘refugees’, the country’s freedom meant life in “refugee camps” for months and years.

(iii) The employees of the government and the railways were also divided. Above all, it was a violent separation of communities who had hitherto lived together as neighbours. It is estimated that the partition forced about 80 lakh people to migrate across the new border. Between five to ten lakh people were killed in partition related violence. Even after large scale migration of Muslims to the newly created Pakistan, the Muslim population in India accounted for 12% of the total population in 1951.
OR
The process of nation—building did not come to an end with partition and integration of princely states. The challenges were to draw the internal boundaries of the Indian states in a way so that the linguistic and cultural plurality of the country could be reflected without affecting the unity of the nation.

During colonial rule, the states’ boundaries were drawn either on administrative convenience or simply coinciding with the territories annexed by the British government or the territories ruled by the Princely Powers.

Our national movement had promised the linguistic principle as the basis of formation of states. In fact after the Nagpur session of Congress in 1920, the principle was recognized as the basis of the reorganization in the Indian National Congress Party itself. Many provincial congress committees were created by linguistic zones, which did not follow the administrative divisions of British India.

The government’s approach was guided by 3 considerations. Firstly the people of most of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian union. Secondly the government was prepared to be flexible in giving autonomy to some regions. The idea was to accommodate plurality and adopt a flexible approach in dealing with the demands of the region. Thirdly in the backdrop of partition which brought into focus the contest over the demarcation of territory, the integration and consolidation of the territorial boundaries of the nation had assumed supreme importance.

Question 34.
Was the declaration of emergency in 1975 necessary? Support your answer with any three suitable arguments. [6]
OR
Explain any three lessons learnt from the emergency imposed in 1975.
Answer:
Declaration of emergency in 1975 was necessary. On 25th June 1975, the President of India declared an internal emergency under Article 352 on the advice of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. Due to certain circumstances, Mrs. Indira Gandhi was left with no option except to impose emergency. Emergency was justified by the Prime Minister, Mrs. Indira Gandhi she gave a speech to Lok Sabha on July 22, 1975 and said, “This action is totally within our constitutional framework and it was undertaken in order not to destroy the constitution but to preserve the constitution, to preserve and safeguard our democracy.”

(i) The government argued that in a democracy the opposition parties must allow the elected ruling party to govern according to its policies.

(ii) It felt that frequent recourse to agitations, protests and collective action were not good for democracy. They also held that in a democracy, one cannot continuously have “extra parliamentary” politics targeting the government. This leads to instability and distracts the administration from its routine task of ensuring development.

(iii) Indira Gandhi wrote to Shah commission that subversive forces were trying to obstruct the progressive programmes of the government and were attempting to dislodge her from power through extra-constitutional means.
OR
On the advice of Prime Minister, Mrs. Indira Gandhi, the President declared internal emergency on 25th June 1975. Thousands of workers and leaders of the opposition parties were put in jail under MISA. Many restrictions were put on the freedom of press. Legislative Assemblies of Gujarat and Tamil Nadu were dissolved. Following three lessons were learnt from the emergency:

  • Bureaucracy and Judiciary should be independent. Bureaucracy should be unprejudiced and Impartial. It should not be committed to the ideology and principles of the ruling party.
  • The government should run the administration according to the provisions of the constitution. Constitution is supreme and its supremacy should be protected by the Judiciary.
  • Freedom of.press should not be crushed. Freedom of press is very essential for the successful working of democracy. Political consciousness is created among the people by the press.

Question 35.
What was the Soviet System? Assess any four features of the Soviet System? [6]
OR
Examine the relevance of the Non-aligned movement after the cold war era.
Answer:
The Soviet system of economy was planned economy and was managed on basis of state plans for economic and social development. The system of government in U.S.S.R was generally known as Soviet system of government.

Since USSR came into being after the socialist revolution in Russia in 1917 based on the ideas of socialism and the need for an egaliatrian society, the soviet system abolished the institution of private property and designed a society based on the principles of equality. The soviet system gave importance

State and the institution of party—The communists. The economy was planned and controlled by the state. The main features, thus were :

  • The Soviet system was very bureaucratic and authoritarian. U.S.S.R. was a one-party state. The communist party occupied a pivotal position in the socio-political system of soviet union.
  • There was lack of democracy and the absence of freedom of speech.
  • Tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable to the people.
  • Russia dominated everything and people from other regions felt neglected and often suppressed.

OR
Outside the U.N. General Assembly, there is no international body as largely representative as the Non-aligned Movement. The Non-aligned Movement is generally traced from the year 1955 when 29 Asian and African nations met at Bandung to devise the means of combating colonialism. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru, who was one of the moving forces of the conference, said that the coming together of the leaders of Asian and African states was an event of great importance in so far as it marked the birth of Asia and new Africa. The non-aligned movement asserted‘its continued relevance and its determination to uphold the objective to oppose and struggle against injustice, inequality and underdevelopment. NAM is committed to work for the removal of economic inequalities between the developed and the developing countries. It is necessary :

  • For securing a place of dignity, honour and equality for the developing countries.
  • For the establishment of the New International Economic Order.
  • For the democratisation of the international system and its functioning.
  • For the progress of disarmament and denuclearisation.

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